BFMracing
General Category => General Board => Homework Haven => Topic started by: BFM_Fénix on June 03, 2009, 07:10:40 PM
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Hey, i recently finished the semester (yeah!!!!!!!!) but i have a question: can anyone solve this?
infinity
S (n+2)!(n)2/n!(n2-1)
n=1
infinity
S (-1)n(x)2n+1/(2n+1)!
n=1
They are mathematical series problems. any comment will be precciated :) :LOL:
*I think both are easy :winkgrin:*
:evil:
UPS, forgot something. Say if the series converge or diverge. If converge please give me the result. GL i honestly hope someone will know this, have fate in u
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Top one will diverge, bottom one will converge.
That's all I can help with. If I had some more time, I would try and solve it, but i don't right now. Maybe one of our resident mathmaticians can help you.
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First diverges and second converges to sin(x) - x. Second one is the taylor series for sin(x) without the x term, hence the sin(x) - x.
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*looks at jim*
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*looks at jim*
and
*scratches his head*
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Thx for giving the rigth answer, it was a debate with a friend of mine. He didnt believe me those were the real answers (maybe because i never went to math class or the ! played with his mind lol)
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*looks at jim*
Since Edison's answer looks right (and for the second one is exactly right) I can't see the reason to post myself.
Applying D'alambert's ratio test to the first series is enough to show that it diverges since as n tends to infinity an+1/an tends to 1+O(1/n) which is greater than 1.
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*looks at jim*
Since Edison's answer looks right (and for the second one is exactly right) I can't see the reason to post myself.
and he posts anyway ;D the spammer.. lol
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*looks at jim*
Since Edison's answer looks right (and for the second one is exactly right) I can't see the reason to post myself.
Applying D'alambert's ratio test to the first series is enough to show that it diverges since as n tends to infinity an+1/an tends to 1+O(1/n) which is greater than 1.
I concur.
Who's the spammer now :P I'm concurring with an agreement with my answer :P
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lol